2025年中考模拟试题（一)
A.回答问题
英语答题卡
考试号填涂区
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1.答题前，考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔正确填写
缺考
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I am Li Ming and I'd like to join you this summer.
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Li Ming
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第1页共2页
第2页共2页2025年中考模拟试题（一）
英 语
本试卷共12 页，81小题，满分120分。考试用时90分钟。
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔在“考场号”和“座位号”栏相应位置填涂自己的考场号和座位号。将条形码粘贴在答题卡“条形码粘贴处”。
2. 作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。
3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听说应用（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分；A、B、C、D部分为听力理解，E部分为情景对话）
A. 听句子（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。
（ ）1. What animals does the woman want to keep
A B C
（ ）2. Who is the man’s brother
A B C
（ ）3. Why does the woman suggest staying home
A B C
（ ）4. How did the man go to work yesterday
A B C
（ ）5. Which of the following activities will Emily do next week
A B C
B.听对话（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
回答每段对话后面的问题，在每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6小题。
（ ）6. What kind of music does the man like
A. Rock music. B. Country music. C. Popular music.
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。
（ ）7. Where did this conversation probably happen
A. In a cinema. B. In a train station. C. In a supermarket.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
（ ）8. What’s wrong with the woman
A. She has a fever. B. She has a headache. C. She has a toothache.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
（ ）9. What club will the woman join
A. A kung fu club. B. A basketball club. C. A dancing club.
听第五段对话，回答第10小题。
（ ）10. When did Feng Ru make his own plane
A. In 1900. B. In 1909. C. In 1920.
听第六段对话，回答第11至12小题。
（ ）11.Who is the girl in the photo
A. Mary. B. Kate. C. Lily.
（ ）12. How is Lily different from Mary
A. Lily is shorter than Mary. B. Lily is older than Mary. C. Lily is smarter than Mary.
听第七段对话，回答第13至15小题。
（ ）13. Who will go shopping
A. Tom. B. Sally . C. Victor.
（ ）14. When is Victor’s birthday party
A. Today. B. Tomorrow. C. The day after tomorrow.
（ ）15. What kind of drinks will they buy
A. Some tea. B. Some milk. C. Some juice.
C. 听短文（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，在每小题所给的三个选项中，选出一个能完成句子的最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。短文听两遍。
16. Mr. Tan used to work hard as __________.
A. a farmer B. a teacher C. a cook
17. Now Mr. Tan spends his days __________.
A. working really hard B.enjoying his old age C. travelling around China
18. Mr. Tan wants to learn to read, because he wants to read to __________.
A. his wife B. the villagers C. his grandchildren
19. Mr. Tan went to the night class ___________.
A. once a week B. twice a week C. three times a week
20. After going to the night class, Mr. Tan can read over _________.
A. 200 words B. 400 words C. 500 words
D. 听填信息（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一则学校节日活动通知。请你根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
The Trip to Science and Technology Museum Why: to celebrate the School Science Festival Where and when to meet: at the school (21) _______ at 8:30 a.m. What to do: ◆ having a (22) _________ class in the 3D theater ◆ watching shows for (23) _________ hours ◆ (24) _________ some products What to take: a notebook, a (25) _________ and a mobile phone
E. 情景对话（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请通读下面对话，根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余选项。
A. What about you B. Thank you so much! C. I couldn’t agree more. D. I’m heading to the school garden. E. Do you enjoy spending time in the garden F. We’re planting sunflowers and some vegetables.
Mike: Hello, Julie! Where are you going after school
Julie: Hi, Mike! 26 There’s a lot of planting work waiting for me.
Mike: That sounds good! What are you going to plant this time
Julie: 27
Mike: Wow, that’s quite a task, but it must be really interesting. 28
Julie: Yes, I do enjoy it! It’s hard work, but it’s so satisfying to watch the plants grow day by day.
Mike: It sure is a wonderful way to relax after classes.
Julie: 29 Besides, it’s a great chance to learn about nature and work together as a team.
Mike: I can imagine how beautiful our school garden looks with all the effort you put in.
Julie: 30 Hope you can join us!
Mike: I will be there after finishing the project.
二、语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，根据语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
My brother John always dreamed of becoming rich overnight. Every week, he would buy lottery (彩票) tickets, hoping for a bit of luck, 31 luck never seemed to be on his side.
As April Fools’ Day got closer, I couldn’t wait 32 a trick on him. On the morning of April 1, while John 33 for the lottery results, I carefully cut out some numbers from some fake (假的) lottery tickets to match the winning ones. Then, the ticket pieces 34 into his jacket pocket. But John didn’t check them right away. As he took out the pieces from his pocket with the winning 35 , he jumped up and down with excitement. “Alex, I just won the lottery!” he shouted. “Really 36 amazing!” I said, and tried hard not to laugh out loud.
John danced around 37 , and I watched, trying hard not to laugh . But soon I couldn’t keep the joke going any longer. “April fools!” I shouted to 38 .
When John realized that it was all 39 joke, he was sad. Then he ran after me, acting like he was mad but laughing all the time.
Even after so many years, it remains one of 40 memories of ours. I’ll never forget it.
（ ）31. A. but B. and C. or
（ ）32. A. play B. to play C. playing
（ ）33.A. waits B. waited C. was waiting
（ ）34.A. placed B. were placing C. were placed
（ ）35.A. number B. numbers C. numbers’
（ ）36.A. How B. What C. What an
（ ）37.A. happily B. happiness C. happy
（ ）38.A. he B. him C. his
（ ）39.A. the B. an C. a
（ ）40.A. funny B. funnier C. the funniest
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
David and Helen left the school and walked towards home.
“I wish we could play 41 at our neighborhood park.” said Helen.
“But the basketball hoop (框) at the park is 42 ,” said David. “It hasn’t been fixed yet.”
David and Helen walked past the town’s recycling station. When David saw many recyclable plastic, paper and metal（金属）objects, he 43 an idea—maybe we could reuse something to make a basketball hoop. As he looked around the station, an old plastic basket caught his 44 . “We can use this.” he held it up and said to Helen.
Helen 45 , “It looks useless.”
David smiled and said, “It won’t look so bad. I could 46 a fine hoop with it.”
At home, David made a post and a backboard（篮板）with some waste wood. Then he 47 cut off the bottom of the basket, stuck the basket to the backboard, and the backboard to the post. After that, he went to the park, dug a hole, and put the post in the 48 .
The next day Helen saw the recycled hoop. She tried and scored a goal. She said 49 , “I was wrong. It is a lot better than I thought.”
“When we reuse things, we make waste 50 again.”
“Wonderful! Now we can play basketball whenever we want!” Helen shouted and scored another goal.
（ ）41. A. baseball B. basketball C. volleyball D. tennis
（ ）42. A. old B. dirty C. broken D. hidden
（ ）43. A. thought of B. talked about C. looked for D. made up
（ ）44. A. attention B. number C. name D. help
（ ）45. A. suggested B. explained C. nodded D. doubted
（ ）46. A. repair B. paint C. make D. open
（ ）47. A. widely B. easily C. thinly D. carefully
（ ）48. A. island B. ground C.street D. lake
（ ）49. A. excitedly B. patiently C. clearly D. slowly
（ ）50. A. tidy B. fresh C. clean D. useful
四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
请阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A
Join Educational School Trip (EST) Educational School Trip (EST) has many benefits. It helps you learn some life skills including teamwork, time management, and communication. EST also gives you new experiences that can help with your future jobs. EST is popular because we can let you share and learn skills from each other. On the trip, you can have fun, see new places, and learn new things, which helps you understand the world better. What’s more, it helps you connect with classmates and enjoy time outside the classroom.When planning a trip, you should research and prepare well. Here are four easy steps for your school trip: ▲ Tell us your interests. Fill out our form and let us know when you plan to travel and anything else we should know. ▲Our trip advisors will give you a trip plan based on our own experience. ▲When everything matches what you want, we’ll help you book. ▲ Just count down until your perfect school trip begins. Enjoy every moment of your trip with our great services. Working Hours: Monday to Friday: 8:30 a.m. to 5:30 p.m; Saturday: 8:30 a.m. to 12:30 p.m. Price & Discount: 180 dollars for one person. Three or more persons sign up（报名）together, 20% off. Contact Us: Hotline: 904-0117 Email: SchoolTrips@ Website: www.
（ ）51. What can you learn at EST
A. Telling English stories. B. Cooking some dishes.
C. Working with others. D. Managing your feelings.
（ ）52. What can we know about EST according to the steps
A. It will give you a trip plan. B. It will provide some food and water.
C. It will call you after you book. D. It will ask you about your experience.
（ ）53. Who is the passage written for
A. Teachers. B. Students. C. Workers. D. Parents.
（ ）54. How much should they pay in total if Mike signs up with two friends
A. $180. B. $144. C. $540. D. $432 .
（ ）55. What is the purpose of this passage
A. To share an experience. B. To introduce a school trip.
C. To provide some jobs. D. To teach some life skills.
B
Which animal has the largest ears You might think it’s the elephant, and you’d be kind of right.
As the largest living land animal, the African elephant does have the biggest ears of any living animal, according to Mary Holden, an expert at the American Museum of Natural History. But the animal with the largest ears relative to the size of its body is the long-eared jerboa (跳鼠), a kind of nocturnal animal that is very active at night. They lives in the deserts of China and they live on insects.
The long-eared jerboa is about 10 centimeters long and it has a very long tail. Its ears, about 5 cm long, are about 50% the length (长度) of its body. Why such big ears “We believe that large ears have to do with warmer environments,” Mary said. “And if you look at African and Asian elephants, African elephant ears are much larger than Asian elephant ears, because African elephants live in a hotter climate.”
That’s the same as the long-eared jerboa. Its ears are large and thin, and they have many tiny blood vessels (血管). While running through the ears, the blood lets the heat go into the air. Therefore, the animal can cool off quickly.
Large ears help the long-eared jerboa to live in hot and dry environment. More importantly, they help the animal easily hear sounds coming from the insects or its enemies so that they can find food or avoid danger easily. That’s why it can survive in the desert.
（ ）56. What does the underline word nocturnal in paragraph 2 mean
A. Lazy. B. Small. C. Smart. D. Night.
（ ）57. Which of the following animal is the long-eared jerboa
A. B. C. D.
（ ）58. Why do African elephants have larger ears than Asian elephants
A. Because they live on insects and plants.
B. Because they live in hotter and drier places.
C. Because they have many tiny blood vessels.
D. Because they need bigger ears to keep warm.
（ ）59. How do big ears help the long-eared jerboa to live in the desert
① By leading it to find food. ② By helping it cool off quickly.
③ By helping it save energy. ④ By keeping it away from danger.
①②④ B. ①③④ C. ②③④ D. ①②③
（ ）60. What is the passage mainly about
A. Different kinds of elephants in the world.
B. An expert’s research on African elephants.
C. The animal with the largest ears in the world.
D. Reasons that animals can survive in the desert.
C
配对阅读：左栏是五个人的相关信息，右栏是七个应用软件(app)的相关介绍，请为左栏的每个人选择一个合适的进行匹配。
Jane likes shopping online. She bought a new mobile phone last week. She would like to find a new way to pay online. John’s company is not far away from the subway station. After taking the subway, he wants to cycle the rest of the way. 63. Linda wants to drive her new car to visit her parents in Shenzhen. She is afraid she will get lost in the city. 64.Tom is busy preparing for the English exam. He has trouble in remembering all the words. He wants to find a way to help with it. 65. Kate wants to have a trip with her friend next month. She is looking for an app to take beautiful photos during their trip. A.This app tells you how many English words you need to learn every day. You can practise remembering the new word in different ways. It can also be fun, like playing a guessing game. B. This might be the right music app for you. You can mark the songs you like and keep in another list as your favourites. C. People who have cards from 19 banks can use this kind of payment with many products, like the latest mobile phones. It’s easy to pay online. D. This app can be the best helper when you feel it hard to buy the train or airline tickets. You can buy tickets anywhere at any time. E. This e-map can provide you with searching service. With the app, you can search the streets, restaurants, banks, schools and so on. You won’t lose your way in a new city. F. Download this app and you can find the nearest bike. You don’t need to walk for a long way to the place you like. It’s a good way of solving the “last mile” problem. G. The photos are clear and the app is easy to use. Many people like this app because of its new technology which can make photos look prettier.
五、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
请从方框内选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使文章完整连贯。注意每空一词，每词仅用一次，有两词为多余项。请将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
although bear brave give hard it love much study to travel year
Qian Xuesen was a great scientist. He is known as “the Father of China’s Space Program.” He is also known as “the King of the Rocket.” Thanks 66 his research, China’s space technology has progressed in a rapid way.
Qian was 67 in Shanghai on December 11th, 1911. At the age of 24, he went to America to 68 . After graduation, he worked in America for a few 69 . In the early 1950s, he heard that New China had been founded, and he decided to 70 up the good working conditions in America. 71 the American government tried to stop him from leaving, he succeeded in coming back to China in 1955.
In 1956, Qian Xuesen suggested starting a special organization. Then 72 became the leading organization for China’s rocket and air travel. At that time, the conditions in China were very 73 . But Qian and his team still faced the difficulties 74 . On April 24, 1970, China’s first man-made satellite (卫星) was successfully sent into the air.
A student of Qian Xuesen, Zhu Yilin, once said, “I learned much knowledge and working spirit from Mr. Qian. I sensed his deep 75 for our country, too. When New China needed scientists badly, he returned to help in the rocket industry.”
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A. 回答问题（本题共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
请阅读下面短文，根据所提供的信息，回答5个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、信息完整切题，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
Is the summer vacation long enough to turn life for the better Every person has his own talents and interests. Find something you care about, and you will see the difference. ▲Organize a clean-up program People often litter in the place where there is already rubbish. This leaves the community in a mess. The environment will become better if someone volunteers to help. You could pick up the rubbish with your friends once a week in your neighborhood. You could also help take care of the plants every few days. ▲Be a volunteer for the old Our city has some old people’s homes. Without children around them, the old people there might feel lonely once in a while. Maybe they need your help. In fact, you can do a lot for them. For example, you can talk with them or play games with them. Listening to them carefully is also a good idea. Some old people can’t see clearly so they would like you to read to them. ▲Set up a reading project with your friends Share your favourite books with them. Besides, you may read aloud to each other and talk about what you read. The project is also a good way to welcome newcomers. At the same time, you may find new friends with similar hobbies. A two-month summer vacation isn’t that long, but it’s enough to make a difference.
76. How often can you pick up rubbish in your neighborhood
__________________________________________________________________
77. Besides picking up rubbish, what else can you do for the clean-up program
_________________________________________________________________
78. Where can you show your love to the old _________________________________________________________________
79. Why do the old like you to read to them _________________________________________________________________
80. Who can you set up the reading project with
_________________________________________________________________
B. 书面表达（本题15分）
81. 请根据要求完成短文写作，并将写作内容写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
暑假快要到了，假设你叫李明，你打算参加上面的假期活动。请你根据以下思维导图内容提示用英文写一封申请信。
注意：
（1）可在思维导图内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息。
（2）不能照抄原文：不得在作文中出现真实校名、地名和考生的真实姓名。
（3）语句连贯，词数80左右。作文的标题和开头已经给出，不计入总词数，也不必抄写在答题卡上。
Dear Sir/Madam,
I am Li Ming and I’d like to join you this summer.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Ming2025年4月中考模拟
英语测试双向细目表
制表人（命题者）： 审核人（科组长）：
序号 知 识 点 能力层级 难易程度 试题 序号 所占比例 分 值
识记 理解 综合运用 易 中 难
一A 听句子 √ √ √ 1-5 4% 5
一B 听对话 √ √ √ 6-15 8% 10
一C 听短文 √ √ √ 16-20 8% 10
一D 听填信息 √ √ √ √ 21-25 4% 5
二语法选择 冠词 √ √ 31 8% 10
名词所有格 √ √ 32
动词不定式 √ √ 33
介词 √ √ 34
被动语态 √ √ 35
宾语从句 √ √ 36
代词 √ √ 37
连词 √ √ 38
形容词 √ √ 39
时态 √ √ 40
三完形填空 副词 √ √ 41 8% 10
动词短语 √ √ 42
形容词 √ √ 43
动词 √ √ 44
名词 √ √ 45
动词 √ √ 46
动词短语 √ √ 47
名词 √ √ 48
形容词 √ √ 49
名词 √ √ 50
四阅读理解A 细节理解、词义猜测、主旨大意 √ √ 51—55 8% 10
四阅读理解B 细节理解、主旨大意 √ √ 56—60 8% 10
四阅读理解C 细节理解 √ √ 61—65 8% 10
五短文填空 名词、动词、冠词、形容词、代词、连词 √ √ 66—75 12.5% 15
六A回答问题 回答what, how long, where, which引导的特殊疑问句 √ √ 76—80 8% 10
六B书面表达 体育话题的写作，介绍体育运动，阐述好处，提出号召 √ √ 81 12.5% 15
合计分值 120
备注：参考《义务教育新课程标准》确定本次考试的知识点及其能力层级、是否重点。2025年广东省初中学业水平考试
英语参考答案及评分标准
一、听说应用（本大题分为A、B、C、D、E五部分，共30小题，每小题1分，共30分）
A. 听句子（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5.B
B. 听对话（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
6. A 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B 11.C 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. C
C. 听短文（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
16. A 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. C
D. 听填信息（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
21. playground 22. special 23. two/2 24. making 25. pen
E. 情景对话（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
26. D 27. F 28. E 29. C 30. B
二、语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
31. A 32. B 33. C 34. C 35.B 36. A 37.A 38. B 39. C 40.C
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. A 45. D 46. C 47. D 48. B 49. A 50. D
四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
51. C 52. A 53. B 54. D 55. B 56. D 57. B 58. B 59. A 60. C
61. C 62. F 63. E 64. A 65. G
五、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
66. to 67. born 68. study 69. years 70. give
71. Although 72. it 73. hard 74. bravely 75. love
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A. 回答问题（本题共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
76. I/We can pick up rubbish once a week in the neighborhood. / Once a week.
77. I/We can help take care of the plants. / Help take care of the plants.
78. I/We can show my/our love to the old at some old people’s homes. / At some old people’s homes.
79. Because some old people can’t see clearly.
80. I/We can set up a reading project with my /our friends. / My/Our friends.
B. 书面表达（本题15分）
81. One possible version:
Dear Sir/Madam,
I am Li Ming and I’d like to join you this summer. I’m interested in the reading project because I love reading and I want to have fun with my friends.
First of all, I’m ready to help others. Next, I plan to to share my favourite books with my friends. I think we’ll learn a lot from each other’s favourites. Maybe we will choose the best parts to perform in a play. Finally, I’m going to write a reading diary every day to understand the books better.
I do hope that I can get the chance to join the project. I’m looking forward to your reply.
Yours,
Li Ming
评分标准：
第一大题D部分（共5小题，每题1分）
本题主要考查考生听的能力，单词拼写如有大小写错误和名词单复数错误，建议不扣分，
专有名词除外。单词拼写如有词性错误，如23. watching写成watch，扣0.5分。
第五大题（共10小题，每小题1.5分）
考生所填答案与所给答案一致，或其他意思符合短文内容要求且形式正确的答案给满分；所填答案意思相符但形式有错，每个扣0.5分；意思不符不给分。大小写错误扣0.5分。例：第67题写为bear，扣0.5分。
第六大题
A. 回答问题(共5小题，每小题2分)
所写答案信息准确、语法正确、语义完整，给满分。
所写答案信息不完整，每题扣1分；出现无关信息，每题扣 0.5 分；信息错误不给分。所写答案信息准确，信息完整，语法有误，每处扣 0.5分。
B. 书面表达 (1题，共15分)
1. 评分原则与方法：
从内容与语言两方面予以分档给分。内容方面要求考生能完整地按思维导图内容提示进行表述，要点详略得当、表述合理，词数符合写作要求。语言方面要求考生表达准确连贯、符合逻辑。允许考生合理运用原文句式结构，但不可以照抄原文。如考生把文章所列出的开头部分抄写在答题卡上，不扣分（即使抄写有错误）。
2. 内容分与语言分的分配
内容分：6分
（1）活动及原因 ………………………………………………………………2分
（2）计划 ……………………………………………………………………3分
（3）希望 ……………………………………………………………………1分
内容要点完整且词数符合写作要求的作文可以得6分，词数在70以下的作文在内容分上酌情扣分。
语言分：9分 （确定语言分档次时要考虑内容的涵盖，每少一个要点，语言分降一个档次给分。）
第一档：8-9分 要求：内容涵盖所有的要点，表达准确，意思连贯，符合逻辑，只有个别不影响交际的语言错误。
第二档：6-7分 要求：内容涵盖绝大部分要点，表达清楚，意思连贯，符合逻辑，只有少量语言错误。
第三档：4-5分 要求：内容涵盖大部分要点，表达较为清楚、连贯，基本符合逻辑，但有一些语言错误。
第四档：1-3分 要求：内容涵盖部分要点，能写出少数正确句子，但整体表达不连贯，且语言错误较多。
第五档：0分 空白卷或完全没有相关内容。
注：以上答案及评分标准仅供参考。
