2024-2025 学年度第一学期期中考试试卷
八年级 英 语
听力部分（20分）
一、听力选择（每小题1分，计20分。每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间。）
（一）听句子，选择恰当的应答语。句子读两遍。
（ ）1. A. Yes, sure. B. No, you can’t. C. Yes, please.
（ ）2. A. Now. B. On weekends. C. Every day.
（ ）3. A. Doing the dishes. B. He’s cleaning the floor. C. Yes, he does.
（ ）4. A. She thinks it’s boring. B. She thinks it’s interesting. C. She is lazy.
（ ）5. A. No, we aren’t. B. Yes, I do. C. No, they don’t.
（二）听小对话，选择正确的图片。对话读两遍。
（ ）6. What’s the girl going to do after dinner
A. B. C.
（ ）7.What does the girl want to use
A. B. C.
（ ）8.What is Lucy going to do
A. B. C.
（ ）9.What does Sally’s father usually do
A. B. C.
（ ）10.What should the boy do first
A. B. C.
（三）听两段对话，选择最佳答案。对话读两遍。听第一段对话，完成第11—12小题。
（ ）11.What’s the boy going to do
A. Have dinner with his friends. B. Stay out late. C. Go to the concert.
（ ）12.Why can’t the boy stay out late
A. He’ll have a test.
B. He’ll have a basketball game.
C. He’ll have a football game.
听第二段对话,完成第 13—15 小题。
（ ）13. How often does Steve play ball games
A. Twice a week. B. Three times a week. C. Four times a week.
（ ）14. What does Steve do on Wednesday
A. Plays volleyball. B. Goes to the drum club. C. Does his homework.
（ ）15. When does Steve watch the evening news
A. At 6 o’clock. B. At 7 o’clock. C. At 10 o’clock.
（四）听短文，补全所缺部分，选出听到的单词。短文读两遍。
We have a lot of trouble in our life, but we have to face the trouble. When you are feeling unhappy or forget how great you are, there are six ways to make you 16. good about yourself.
★Look in the mirror and say to 17. , “I’m a special person in the world. I can do anything!” It really works!
★Do something nice for someone.
★Smile! Be 18. to people you meet.
★Learn .19. new!
★Read and start a diary. Writing always helps to express your feelings.
★Stay with your 20. . Talk with your Mum and Dad or maybe even your cousin.
笔试部分（100分）
二、语法与情景会话（每小题1分，共25分）
（ ）21. —What do you think of movie Dangal
—Wonderful! It’s educational movie. I like it very much.
A. the; an B. a; an C. a; the D. the; a
（ ）22. Bob went to last month.
A. anywhere interesting B. interesting anywhere
C. interesting somewhere D. somewhere interesting
（ ）23.—Can you understand me, Tony —Yes, madam. You speak . I can follow you.
A. enough clear B. clear enough C. enough clearly D. clearly enough
（ ）24.—Paul, do you play basketball after school —Twice a week. It can keep me healthy.
A. how far B. how soon C. how long D. how often
（ ）25. he was tired, he didn’t stop .
A. Although; but; to rest B. Though; /; working
C. Although; /; resting D. Though; but; working
（ ）26. —What is Tom interested in —He is interested in sports, basketball, tennis and ping-pong. A. such as B. at least C. hardly ever D. because of
（ ）27. —Do you have any brothers, Bill —Yes, I have two brothers. of them live in London.
A. Each B. None C. All D. Both
（ ）28. —How can I make more friends, Mr. Smith —Be friendly and truly others.
A. care about B. bring out C. feel like D. put up
（ ）29. —Who sings , you or Jack —Jack, but I dance than him!
A．more loudly; better B. loudly; well
C．more loudly; good D. loudly; better
（ ）30.Cola is not a kind of drink, and it’s bad for our .
A. health; healthy B. healthy; healthy C. health; health D. healthy; health
（ ）31. Jim is funnier than in his class.
A. any other boy B. any boy C. any other boys D. the other boy
（ ）32. Mo Yan is one of writers in the world.
A. famous B. more famous C. most famous D. the most famous
（ ）33. This TV show is very , and you can learn many things.
A. educational B. meaningless C. serious D. boring
（ ）34. He is different his brother, but he is similar his father.
A. from; from B. to; to C. from; to D. to; from
（ ）35. He always jokes and makes us .
A. talks; laugh B. tells; laugh C. talks; to laugh D. tells; to laugh
（ ）36. —Kate, What happened you yesterday
—I happened meet my old friend Lucy in the street.
A. to; with B. to; to C. with; to D. with; with
（ ）37. I think a foreign language is not easy. You should it often.
A. to learn; to practice B. learning; practice
C. learn; practicing D. learns; to practice
（ ）38.—We will certainly go to a good high school we work hard.
—Yes. Our dream will come true by working hard.
A. as soon as B. as long as C. as far as D. even if
（ ）39. students knew what the American boy said because they knew English.
A. A little; a few B. Few; a little C. Few; little D. A few; little
（ ）40. Wang Lin is trying her best English because she plans to England.
A. learn; to go B. to learn; going C. learning; to go D. to learn; to go
（ ）41. —Our city is becoming .—Sure. The buildings are getting than before.
A. more and most beautiful; more taller B. more beautiful and more beautiful; taller
C. more and more beautiful; much taller D. beautiful and beautiful; much more taller
（ ）42. —You look sad. What happened —I can’t find a way the students quiet.
A. to keep B. Keep C. keeps D. keeping
（ ）43. I see Wei Han English almost every morning.
A. reads B. reading C. read D. to read
（ ）44.This movie is wonderful I want to watch it again.
A.so; that B. such; that C. too; to D. as; as
（ ）45. —I am so excited because I got the first prize in the competition. — .
A. You’re welcome B. That’s all right
C. You did a good job D. It’s hard to say
三、完形填空（每小题1分，共10分）
Most children like to watch TV. It’s very 46 and useful. By watching TV, they can get a lot of knowledge and know many 47 about their country and the 48 . They can also see many 49 singers and movie stars on TV. TV helps to open children’s 50 .
TV helps to open their minds, too. Children will learn newer and better 51 of doing things. They may find the world is now 52 than before.
Many children watch TV only on 53 or Sunday evening. They are always busy with their lessons. But 54 children still watch TV every night. They even 55 to do their homework. They usually go to bed very late and don’t have a good rest.
How often do you watch TV, my friend
（ ）46. A. happy B. interesting C. glad D. healthy
（ ）47. A. food B. drinks C. clothes D. things
（ ）48. A. world B. school C. town D. city
（ ）49. A. kind B. bad C. famous D. well
（ ）50. A. mouths B. hands C. eyes D. ears
（ ）51. A. roads B. ways C. books D. places
（ ）52. A. smaller B. bigger C. cleaner D. dirtier
（ ）53. A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Thursday D. Saturday
（ ）54. A. little B. a little C. few D. a few
（ ）55. A. start B. stop C. forget D. remember
四、阅读理解（每小题2分，共20分）
A
How do people from all over the world spend their free time Let’s have a look.
Internet People from Canada spend about 43.5 hours online every week, 8 hours longer than Americans. Canada has long cold winters, so people spend lots of time at home. Outdoors People from New Zealand spend most of their free time outdoors. The countryside there is great for mountain climbing and water sports. Museums The UK has six of the top 20 most visited museums in the world, such as the National Gallery, the British Museum and Tate Modern. Parties As for parties, most people will think of Brazil. Its carnival (狂欢节) is famous all around the world. Bangkok and Berlin are two of the best cities for partying. In Bangkok, you can meet friendly people and visit great nightclubs. In Berlin, you can enjoy beautiful music on the streets. Exercising In Greece and Estonia, over 80 percent of people exercise every day. The Olympic sports are very popular in these two countries, but Estonia has a very special game: ice cricket (冰上板球)!
（ ）56. Americans spend about online every week.
A. 35.5 hours B. 43.5 hours C. 51.5 hours D. 59.5 hours
（ ）57. People from New Zealand spend most of their free time .
A. having parties B. visiting museums
C. having fun in the bars D. doing outdoor activities
（ ）58. More than 80% of people from do exercise every day.
A. Spain B. Britain C. Greece D. Canada
（ ）59. We can learn from the passage that .
A. Tate Modern is a museum in the UK
B. people from Brazil often play ice cricket
C. The countryside in Canada is great for mountain climbing and water sports.
D. the weather in Canada is always sunny and warm
（ ）60. What is the main purpose(目的) of the passage
A. To tell the reasons why people in Spain love bars.
B. To tell us how people from different countries spend their free time.
C. To help people know which country they can go for holiday.
D. To teach people how to play ice cricket in their free time.
B
“Dreams may be more important than sleep. We all need dreams.” Some scientists say. Dreams take up (占据) about one quarter of our sleeping time. People have a few dreams each night.
Dreams are like short films. They are usually in colour. Some dreams are like old films. They come to us over and over again. That may be because the dreamers thinks about something all the time. Dreaming may be a way of trying to find an answer.
Some people get new ideas about their work from dreams. They may think about their work all day. These ideas can get into dreams.
Sometimes we wake up with a good feeling from a dream. But often we can’t remember the dream. Dreams can go away quickly.
Too much dreaming cannot be good. The more we sleep, the longer we dream. The mind is hard at work when we dream. That is why we may have a long sleep and still wake up tired.
（ ）61. Sleeping may be less important than _________.
A. thinking B. dreaming C. working D. studying
（ ）62. Dreams and films are usually _________.
A. very long B. in colour C. about work D. very sad
（ ）63. Why do some people often dream about their work？Because they
A. are tired in the daytime. B. aren’t interested in their work
C. have too much work to do D. May think about their work all day
（ ）64. Which of the following is not true？
A. Dreams may be helpful to people sometimes.
B. Too much dreaming may be bad for people.
C. People always remember their dreams quickly.
D. People sometimes wake up tired if they have a lot of dreams.
（ ）65. The story mainly tells us .
A. what dreams are. B. People like sleep.
C. Dreams are like films. D. We always remember dreams.
五、口语交际（每小题1分，共5分）从方框中选择恰当的向子补全对话，其中有两项多余。
A. Do you like watching talk shows B. I don’t like watching TV. C. I’m sorry to hear that. D. I like to watch sports and films in the evening. E. May I ask you a few questions F. How often do you watch TV G. I’m a doctor
A: Hello! This is CCTV. We’re making a survey of TV watching habits. 66
B: Certainly.
A: OK. What’s your job, please
B: 67
A: Well, and how many hours do you watch TV each day
B: Um, about one hour each day.
A: What’s your favorite TV program
B: 68
A: Do you watch TV at any other time
B: Not really. A: All right! 69
B: No, I really don’t watch talk shows very often.
A: May I ask why
B: Well, I don’t think they are interesting for me.
A: 70
Anyway, thank you very much.
B: You’re welcome.
六、任务型完形填空（每小题1分，共10分）。
health but China be river excite in like swim they
People enjoy sports. Sports help to keep people 71 , happy and to live longer. Many people like to watch others play games. They buy tickets or sit 72 front of TV sets. Often they get very 73 when “their player or team” wins.
People play different games in winter and summer. 74 is fun in warm weather, but skating is good in winter. Some sports 75 so interesting that most people like 76 . Football, for example, is played around the world. Swimming is very popular in all countries near the sea or in those with many 77 . How fun it is to jump into a pool or a lake! And for people in cold countries, 78 Norway or Canada, they like to skate or ski. Some sports go back thousands of years, like running or jumping. 79 boxing(拳击), for example, has a long history. 80 basketball and volleyball are very new. And new sports or games come into the world almost all the time.
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
七、用所给词的正确形式填空（每小题1分，共10分）
81. The problem seems (be) difficult to work out.
82. I want to go out alone because I was too (boring).
83. It’s very important for us to listen to the teacher (care) in class.
84. Mrs. Black is very busy. He sleeps (little) than six hours every night.
85. We tried our best and ______________ (win) the game.
86. Which is (small), the sun, the earth or the moon
87. I go to the library (two) a week with my brother.
88. My grandpa always (exercise) every day to keep healthy.
89. (luck), the boy didn’t miss the bus and got to school on time.
90. I don’t know what (do) to improve my spoken English.
八、根据汉语提示完成下列句子（每小题2分，共10分）
91. 如果你认真对待每一件事情，你的生活将会非常美好。
If you everything , your life will be pretty good.
92. 事实上，约翰就是一个优秀的学生。
, John is an excellent student.
93. 小约翰喜欢装扮成一个警察。
Little Jone likes to as a policeman.
94. 请告诉我怎样把我最好的一面展现出来。
Please tell me how to the best in me.
95. 不要为你的错编造任何借口。
Don’t any excuse for your mistake.
九、写作（10分）
假设你是Tony，你打算加入英语社团。请你根据一些提示，写一篇在自我介绍，让更多的人认识你。作文必须包含要点提示，可适当拓展。要求词数在70-80之间，开头已给，不计入总词数。
要点提示：1.英文名字（Tony），来自中国甘肃，是一名13岁的中学生；2.生活习惯：经常锻炼；每天吃水果蔬菜，喝牛奶；很少吃垃圾食品，一周上网三到四次；3.交友：好朋友是Tom，他比你高，比你文静，学习更加努力；你更外向，更擅长与运动；4.你打算努力学习，取得好成绩，实现你的梦想。
I’m very glad to introduce myself to all of you.
参考答案
一、听力选择（共20小题，计20分。）
1—5 ACAAB 6—10 BACCB 11—15 ACCBB
16.feel 17. yourself 18. friendly 19. something 20. family
二、单选题（共20小题，共20分）
21. A 22. D 23. D 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. A 29. A 30. D
31. A 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. B 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. D
41. C 42. A 43. C 44. A 45. C
三、完型填空（共15分）
46. B 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. C 51. B 52. B 53. D 54. D 55. C
四、阅读单选（共30分）
56. A 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. B 61. B 62. B 63. D 64. C 65. A
五、补全对话7选5（共5分）
66. E 67. G 68. D 69. A 70. C
六、任务型完形填空（每小题1分，共10分）
71.healthy 72. in 73. excited 74. swimming 75. are
76.them 77.rivers 78.like 79.Chinese 80.but
七、词汇考查（共5分）
81. To be 82. Bored 83. Carefully 84. less 85. won
86. the smallest 87. twice 88. exercises 89. Luckily 90. to do
完成句子（每空1分，共10分）
91. take seriously
92. in fact
93. dress up
94. bring out
95. Make up
八、材料作文（共15分）
略
