建瓯市2024-2025学年第一学期八年级期中质量监测
英语试题参考答案及评分说明
评分说明：
1. 选择题部分所提供的答案均为唯一答案；
2. 非选择题部分提供一种或几种参考答案，如考生的答案与所提供的答案不同。请根据考查内容比照评分标准酌情评分;
3. 书面表达按不同档次的标准进行评分，各档的细化量分可参照评分标准制定相应的细则。第一至五档最低赋分值为0.5分。
I. 听力（每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 CABBA 6-10 BBCAB 11-15 AACCC
16. walking 17. supper 18. Monday 19. football 20. once
★ 评分标准：16—20小题凡与提供的答案不符均不得分。
II. 单项选择 (每小题1分，满分15分)
21-25 AACCB 26-30 CBAAB 31-35 BBCAC
III. 完形填空（每小题1.5分，满分15分）
36-40 BCCAC 41-45 ACABB
IV. 阅读理解（共两部分，满分45分）
第一节（每小题2分，满分40分）
46-50 ABCDC 51-55 CDBDA 56-60 ABCBA 61-65 BDCAD
第二节（每小题1分，满分5分）
66-70 CEADB
V. 情景交际（每小题2分，满分10分）
71. I’m sorry to hear that.
1分 1分
May I borrow your bike
1分 0.5分 0.5分
Can/May/Could I leave a message
1分 0.5分 0.5分
I hope you will win.
1分 1分
which do you prefer
0.5分 0.5分 0.5分 0.5分
★ 评分标准：每小题能按照要求写出正确的内容，得2分；能写出主要句子结构，得1—1.5分；能传递个别信息，得0.5分。
VI. 看图写话 （每小题2分，满分10分）
76.We/He/The boy should throw litter into the dustbin.
0.5分 0.5分 1分
77.She/The girl is practicing playing the piano now.
0.5分 0.5分 0.5分 0.5分
78. He/The boy/ wants/ I want to be a policeman when he grows up/I grow up.
0.5分 0.5分 1分
79. She/The girl/I will/is /am going to take part in the high jump tomorrow.
0.5分 0.5分 1分
80. It’s necessary to learn first aid.
0.5分 1分 0.5分
★ 评分标准：每小题能写出一个符合图意的完整、正确的句子，得2分；能基本说明图意，写出主要句子结构，得1—1.5分；能传递个别信息，得0.5分。
VII．短文填词（每小题1分，满分10分）
81. joined 82. to 83. and 84. friends 85. doing
86. an 87. teaches 88. carefully 89. them 90. third
★ 评分标准：按以上所提供的答案给分。
VIII. 书面表达（满分15分）
One possible version:
Sports and Health
As the Sunshine Sports Program carries on, sports are becoming more popular in our School. Sports are becoming popular in our everyday life. They are good for our health.
Having a healthy body can be good for my study. I usually take part in all kinds of sports in my free time. I have fun playing ball games with my friends. Doing sports is a good way to make me relax and keep me fit.
It’s important to do sports often. Sports bring me good health and a wonderful life.
书面表达评分标准
第五档13—15分 包含所有信息，内容完整，语句通顺，意思连贯。没有或基本没有语法、拼写错误，书写规范，词数符合要求。
第四档10—12分 包含大部分信息，内容较完整，表达基本清楚，语句较通顺，有少量语法、拼写错误。书写规范，词数基本符合要求。
第三档7—9分 写出基本信息，语句基本通顺，但句子较简单，表达不够清楚，有部分语法、拼写错误。书写基本规范。
第二档4—6分 写出部分信息，表达不清楚，有较多语法和拼写错误。
第一档1—3分 仅能传递个别信息，通篇只有个别句子可读。
0分 只字未写，或写的内容与所要求的内容无关。
建瓯市2024-2025学年第一学期八年级期中质量监测
听力原文
听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每个句子读两遍）
1.Tom often plays baseball on the weekend.
2.We should say no to smoking.
3.The 24th Winter Olympics was held in Beijing in 2022.
4.Jenny’s favorite fruit is the strawberry.
5.Mark feels quite excited because he can go cycling this Sunday.
第二节 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍）
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
女：You look tired. What’s the matter
男：I was so disappointed that I couldn’t sleep well at night.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
男: Would you mind not eating in class, Amy
女: Sorry, I won’t, Mr. Brown.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
男: Would you like to go shopping with me
女: I’d love to, but I have a lot of homework to do now.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
男：Which do you prefer, tea or milk
女：I’d like a bottle of milk. But Peter likes tea.
听第5段对话，回答第10, 11小题。
女：You weren’t at work for long, Mike. Did you go traveling
男：No, I was in hospital.
女：In hospital What’s the matter with you
男：I fell off my bike and my left arm was badly hurt.
女：How long did you stay in the hospital
男：About fourteen days.
女：You look much better now.
男：Yes, I walk to work this morning.
听第6段对话，回答第12，13小题。
女: What are you going to do tomorrow, Jim
男: I’m going skating. What about you, Lucy
女: I’m going fishing with my sister Sally.
男: Have a good day.
女: The same to you.
听第7段对话，回答第14,15小题。
男:Excuse me, Ms Wang. May I come in
女:Why are you late for school, Jack
男:Sorry, but something happened on my way to school. There is an accident. A boy on the bike ran into a car.
女:Oh really Was anyone hurt
男:The boy got hurt badly. So I called one two zero for help and I stayed there with him until the doctors came.
女:Sorry to hear that. You did a great e in and we will go on our class.
第三节 听短文 根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍)
There are many ways to keep in good health. Jane thinks walking is good for health. Her home isn’t far from school, so she goes to school on foot every day. Tina thinks running is better than walking, so she often runs before supper. However, Sally believes they’re both boring. She dances after school every Monday and Friday because she thinks it’s interesting. Most boys love sports. Mike thinks playing football is a good way to keep healthy. He plays it every weekend. But his friend Peter likes swimming. He swims once a week. What do you do to keep healthy 建瓯市2024-2025学年第一学期八年级期中质量监测
英语试题
(考试时间：120分钟，其中听力30分钟，笔试90分钟；满分:150分 考试形式：闭卷）
说明：
所有答案都必须填在答题卡相应的位置上，答在试卷上一律无效。
I. 听力（共三节，20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
第一节 听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每个句子读两遍）
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
第二节 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍）
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
6. Why does the man look tired
A. He stayed up. B. He couldn’t sleep well. C. He fell ill.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
7. Where are the two speakers probably talking
A. In the lab. B. In the classroom. C. In the library.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
8. What will the woman do
A. Go shopping. B. Stay at home. C. Do her homework.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
9.Which does Peter prefer
A. Tea. B. Milk. C. Tea with milk.
听第5段对话，回答第10，11小题。
10. How long did Mike stay in the hospital
A. For one week. B. For two weeks. C. For three weeks.
11. How did Mike go to work this morning
A. On foot. B. By bike. C. By car.
听第6段对话，回答第12，13小题。
12. When is Jim going skating
A. Tomorrow. B. This afternoon. C. This weekend.
13. Who is Lucy going fishing with
A. Her friend. B. Her cousin. C. Her sister.
听第7段对话，回答第14，15小题。
14. Why is Jack late
A. Because he got up too late.
B. Because he had a car accident.
C. Because he helped a boy.
15. What’s the relationship(关系) between Ms.Wang and Jack
A. Mother and son. B. Doctor and patient. C. Teacher and student.
第三节 听短文 根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍)
Name What activity How often
Jane 16 every day
Tina running before 17
Sally dancing every 18 and Friday
Mike playing 19 every weekend
Peter swimming 20 a week
II. 单项选择 （共15小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. My sister is _________active girl and she likes playing _________basketball.
A. an; / B. a; / C. a; the
22.—Do you take exercise every day
—Yes. I always _________thirty minutes jogging（慢跑）in the morning.
A. spend B. cost C. take
23. The man was so angry __________his son and shouted _________him this evening.
A. with; with B. at; with C. with; at
24. He likes singing __________his brother likes dancing.
A. when B. because C. while
25.—Are you feeling better now
—Yes, I’m __________to go to school.
A. good enough B. well enough C. enough well
26.—Mom, must I do my homework now
—No, you___________. You may take a rest first.
A. mustn’t B. shouldn’t C. don’t have to
27.—When shall we go to the museum
—Let’s _______ it half past five this afternoon.
A. do B. make C. meet
28.—Alex, would you mind if I ___________the window It is a little cold.
—Of course not. You can do it right away.
A. close B. to close C. closing
29. Try your best, and I’m sure we can be ___________one day.
A. successful B. careful C. colorful
30.—___________will you go to the sports club
—In a week.
A. How long B. How soon C. How often
31.—There ____________a soccer game this evening.
—Exciting news.
A. are going to be B. is going to be C. is going to have
32. Meimei got the first place in the _____________in school sports meet last month.
A. girl’s 100 meter race B. girls’ 100-meter race C. girls’ 100 meters race
33.—He plays basketball so well! Who taught him
—He learnt it by____________
A. he B. him C. himself
34. You must have left your sunglasses ____________. I can’t find them here.
A. somewhere else B. somewhere other C. else somewhere
35.—I’m so sorry for losing your dictionary.
—__________
A. You are welcome. B. You are right. C. Never mind.
III．完形填空 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
It was fine that day. We were going to have a basketball game 36 a team from a country school. They didn’t come 37 the game began. They wore old clothes and 38 farm boys. We were not sure whether they saw a basketball before.
We all sat down. We felt that we didn’t 39 any practice against a team like that. It was so late that there was no 40 for them to warm up. The game began.
One of our boys got the ball and passed it to our forward (前锋). A boy in an old T-shirt 41 the pass. Then he was successful to throw the ball through the basket and got a two-point shot (射门).
We were surprised to see this and suddenly 42 these boys were really great and cool.
Then they got another two-point shot in a minute. Soon the game was 43 . The country team beat (打败) us.
We certainly knew there was a good team. But 44 , there was usually another one just a little better. That day we learned an important lesson: One 45 tell a man, or a team, by the clothes.
36. A. with B. against C. from
37. A. when B. while C. until
38. A. looked at B. looked for C. looked like
39. A. need B. try C. get
40. A. money B. place C. time
41. A. stopped B. caught C. changed
42. A. cheered B. remembered C. felt
43. A. over B. off C. away
44. A. at first B. in fact C. at last
45. A. needn’t B. can’t C. mustn’t
IV. 阅读理解（共两节；25小题；满分45分）
第一节 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选择最佳答案。（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
A
Charity Running The Sunshine Youth Fund organized a charity（慈善）running around Tai Shek Lake on Sunday, 6th September. It was hot and wet on that way. Over two hundred people were in it and raised $120,700. The money will go to Project Oasis in
Malaysia. It will help provide clear water for some villages. The top donations（捐赠）and the lucky draw（抽奖）results（结果）are as follows:
Top Donations 1st Mr. King $28,000 2nd Sun Moon Company $25, 000 3rd Mrs. Zhou $20, 000 Charity Lucky Draw Winners First Prize（奖） A 40 inch LCD TV Chen Li Second Prize A vacation to Malaysia Joseph Beer Third Prize A washing machine Jing Kui Other Prizes Bags Kevin Smith and Wu Jun
根据材料内容选择正确答案。
46. How much money did Mr. King donate（捐赠）
A. $28,000. B. $20,000. C. $25,000. D. $120,700.
47. Who won a washing machine
A. Chen Li. B. Jing Kui. C. Kevin Smith. D. Joseph Beer.
48. There are ___________ winners in the lucky draw.
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 8
49.The article is written mainly to_____________.
A. give advice B. say thanks C. ask for help D. show a result
50. Which of the following is TRUE about the charity running
A. The money it raised will be used to protect Tai Shek Lake.
B. It took place on a weekend at the end of September.
C. More than two hundred people were in it.
D. It was popular among young people.
B
“Mom!” Luke said. “I am hungry.”
“OK, Luke,” his mom said. “What would you like ”
“I want a piece of cake,” Luke answered.
“Not right now,” his mom said. “That is OK now and then (偶尔). It is not OK all the time.”
“I want a piece of candy, then,” Luke said.
“That is not good, too,” his mom said. “Those things have too much sugar in them. They are not OK as a snack (零食) each day.”
“Why not ” Luke asked, “I like them.”
“They taste good, but they cause your teeth to rot (腐蚀),” his mom said.
“Are all foods that taste good bad for me ” Luke asked.
“No. Do you like apples ” his mom asked.
“Yes.” Luke said.
“Do you like cheese ” his mom asked.
“Yes.” Luke said.
“These are good for you,” his mom said. “Strawberries are good for you. Oranges are good. Watermelons are good. Pretzels, popcorn (爆米花), and tacos are good for you, too.”
“I like all of those foods,” Luke said.
“So let’s choose one of those foods. They can still taste good,” his mom added.
“OK, Mom,” Luke said. “I want some popcorn.”
“Me, too,” his mom said. “Now go and wash your hands!”
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
51. Why couldn’t Luke eat a piece of cake at that time
A. Because it didn’t taste good. B. Because it was too hard to make.
C. Because it had too much sugar. D. Because there wasn’t cake at home.
52. What are cheese, pretzels and tacos
A. Popular sports. B. Good habits.
C. Unhealthy foods. D. Healthy foods.
53. Which can Luke choose for a snack
A. Ice cream. B. Apples.
C. Chocolate. D. Candy.
54. Which of the following is TRUE
A.We can never eat sweet food.
B. The cheese isn’t good for our health.
C. The foods that taste good are bad for us.
D. Luke’s mom wanted some popcorn, too.
55. What do you think Luke will do next
A. Wash his hands. B. Kiss his mother.
C. Choose the snack. D. Eat a piece of cake.
C
The 2024 Olympics in Paris
Hi kids! We’re the Phryges（弗里热）, the mascots（吉祥物）of the Paris 2024 Olympics and Paralympics（残奥会）. We’re red hats that come from a famous French painting made in 1830. In the painting, a young lady wears a red hat, called the “Phrygian cap（弗里吉亚帽）”, which stands for liberty（自由）. French people love this hat, and it shows up on their coins and stamps. Why are we the mascots this time The designers（设计师）say we stand for France and the power of sports! The Paris Olympics are full of exciting things to see! You can click the button to get more information. Here are some of the fun stuff.
Number facts
The Paris Olympics will be from July 26 to August 11. At the Paris Olympics, there are 32
sports and 329 events. They’ll use 35 venues（场馆）. About 10,500 athletes will compete for 5,084 medals.
Medals
The medals are round in shape with a hexagon（六边形）at the center. The hexagon in every medal is a piece of iron from the Eiffel Tower! The leftover metal was stored secretly for years. Now it’s being used to make these special medals.
New sport
A new event called breaking（霹雳舞）will show up at the Games for the first time! This street dance started in New York in the 1970s and is part of hip-hop culture, with cool moves like spins and flips.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
56. What is the mascot of the Paris 2024 Olympics and Paralympics based on
A. The French painting made in 1830. B. The Eiffel Tower.
C. The French national soccer team. D. Coins and stamps.
57. How long did the Paris Olympics last
A. 16 days. B.17 days. C.18 days. D.19 days.
58. Why is the hexagon in the center of each medal special
A. It is a symbol of France. B. It stands for the Olympic rings.
C. It comes from the Eiffel Tower. D. It stands for the power of sports.
59. What is the name of the new sport that will be introduced at the Paris Olympics
A. Spins and flips. B. Breaking. C. Street dance. D. Hip hop.
60. Where can we find this passage
A. Website. B. Newspaper. C. Magazine. D. Novel.
D
Young people enjoy different kinds of drinks, though they know how bad drinks are for their health. What about you What will happen to you if you only drink water
Chris Bailey, a popular journalist, tried this out. Here is what he has found.
First, you lose weight (体重) fast. Yeah, you do! You don’t have to exercise. Just drink water and keep away from drinks for 9 days. It is the same as running for 8 kilometers a day! So write down your resolution (决心) on the paper and put it on the wall.
Sometimes when you have to stay up late for a test, you may put a cup of tea or coffee at the side of your desk. But do you know 75% to 85% of your brain (大脑) is water Nothing else! Just by drinking water, your brain can work well. You may remember things quickly and well.
What’s more, water washes out something bad in your body. So drinking enough water can stop you from getting old quickly. If you want to look young and beautiful, drink a glass of water right now! Keep on doing it for a long time, and you will be surprised to find your skin(皮肤) is soft and clean.
Last, you save money! The cost of coffee, juice or other drinks is high while water is healthy
and cheap. Drink 5 glasses of water every day or visit doctors Think about it!
So, what are you waiting for
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
61. Which resolution you may write on the paper in Paragraph 3
A. Take more exercise! B. Drink more water!
C. Use the brain more! D. Save more money!
62. What can we learn from the text
A. A cup of coffee helps you remember things well.
B. Just drinking water may make you get old quickly.
C. Keeping on drinking water makes hair soft and clean.
D. Staying away from drinks for 9 days helps lose weight.
63. What does the underlined word “cheap” mean in Chinese
A. 高效的 B. 昂贵的 C. 便宜的 D. 没用的
64. What’s the structure (结构) of the text
A. B. C. D.
65. What’s the best title for the text
A. How to Lose Weight B. How to Look Young
C. How to Save Money D. Water Is the Best Drink
第二节 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯，意思完整。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
E
The smart wristband (手环), a new welcoming product (产品), is changing our lifestyle. 66 . And there are also many different brands to choose, such as Huawei or Xiaomi.
Here are the reasons why people choose a wristband.
67 . The wristband can also be connected (连接) to the mobile phone. You are able to use it to answer the phone, but a traditional (传统的) watch can never do that.
Secondly, the smart wristband looks great. 68 . We often see teenagers wearing wristbands.
Besides, today, many people have known the importance of health. Some people play sports every day to keep healthy. 69 . The wristband shows the results every day and they’ll know if they get enough exercise.
However, some parents still have some worries. 70 . They think the teenagers are under the radiation (辐射) all the time.
Each coin has two sides. Use it or not, it’s up to you.
V. 情景交际 （共5小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据情景提示，完成下列各题。
听说朋友摔伤了，你可以这样说：
__________________________________________________________________________.
你想向朋友借自行车，可以这么说：
__________________________________________________________________________
Susan打电话找Amy，可是Amy不在，她想留个口信，可以这样说：
__________________________________________________________________________
你学校篮球队要参加市里的比赛，可以这样祝福队员们：
__________________________________________________________________________.
75.你想知道Helen更喜欢动物还是植物，你可以这样问她：
Helen, ______________________________________________________, animals or plants
VI. 看图写话 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。
76. should, dustbin 77. practice, play, now 78. want, when, grow
79. take, tomorrow 80. necessary, learn
76._________________________________________________________________
77._________________________________________________________________
78._________________________________________________________________
79._________________________________________________________________
80._________________________________________________________________
VII. 短文填词 （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10 分）
阅读下面短文，根据语境、音标或所给单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个恰当的词，要求所填的词意义准确，形式正确，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。
My name is Bob. I like riding bicycles. Last year, I 81 (join) the bicycle club with my brother. Now we are busy from Tuesday 82 Friday, so we only have activities on the weekend. We always meet at the sports center 83 we ride to the park together. It’s good for our health.
In the club, I like to make 84 (friend) with different people. We have a new member this week. He’s Peter. He can repair(维修) bicycles and he thinks 85 (do) something to help more people makes our society better. Then we have 86 idea. We put up a sign with some words in the park, “Old Bikes, New Life”. People give us their old bikes for free. Peter 87 (teach) us how to repair the bikes. We repair and clean the bikes 88 (careful). We paint these bikes green and name 89 (they) Sharing Bikes. People can borrow them if they need. It is our 90 (three) time to help others in this way. We are so happy.
81. _________ 82. _________ 83. _________ 84. __________ 85. __________
86. _________ 87. _________ 88. _________ 89. __________ 90. __________
VIII. 书面表达（满分15分）
91. 随着阳光体育（Sunshine Sports Program）在全国的展开，体育运动蓬勃发展，不仅丰富了每个人的业余生活，更有利于身心健康发展。请以“Sports and Health”为题，谈谈你的感受和体会。
内容提示：
1. How do sports affect (影响) your study
2. When do you usually do sports
3. What kind of sports do you usually do
4. Who do you usually do sports with
5. Why do you like doing sports
要求：
文章必须包含题干和内容提示中的所有信息，并适当扩展；
文章中不得出现真实的人名，校名和地名；
3. 80词左右，用词准确，语句通顺，条理清晰。
Sports and Health
As the Sunshine Sports Program carries on, sports are becoming more popular in our school. _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
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