陕西省西安市新城区2023-2024八年级上学期1月期末英语试题 ( 含答案听力音频及原文)

八年级学业水平质量监测
英语参考答案
听力部分录音稿
I.听选答案
第一节:听下面10段对话,每段对话后有一个问题,读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后
面的问题,从所给的三个选项中选出最恰当的一项。
1.W:How often do you play the guitar,Tony
M:Three times a week.
Q:How often does Tony play the guitar
2.W:I'm going to have a birthday party on Sunday.Would you like to come
M:Sure.Thanks for inviting me.
Q:When is the girl going to have her birthday party
3.W:Hi,Peter!What do you usually do on weekends
M:I usually play basketball with my friends.
Q:What does Peter usually do on weekends
4.M:Judy,I'd like to be an actor when I grow up.How about you
W:Oh,I want to be a reporter.
Q:What does Judy want to be
5.M:The sports meeting is over.Who ran fastest
W:Lily came first.She ran faster than Mary and Shirley.
Q:Who ran fastest in the sports meeting
6.M:Do you want to watch a sports show with me,Grace
W:No,it's boring.I'd like to watch a game show.
Q:What does Grace want to watch
7.M:Let's make some chicken soup,Anna.
W:OK.I love soup.
Q:What are they going to make
8.W:What will you do for your brother's birthday,Robert
M:I'll invite some of his friends and have a party for him.
Q:What party will Robert have
9.M:Lucy,what do you think of your new math teacher
W:He is very strict and never laughs.
Q:What is Lucy's math teacher like
10.W:Why do you look so tired
M:Oh,I just stayed up to do my homework.
Q:Why does the boy look tired
【八年级英语·参考答案第1页(共3页)】绝密★启用前 试卷类型:A
八年级学业水平质量监测
英 语
注意事项:
1.全卷满分 120 分,答题时间为 120 分钟。
2.请将各题答案填写在答题卡上。
第一部分(听力 共 30 分)
Ⅰ.听选答案(共 15 小题,计 20 分)
第一节:听下面 10 段对话,每段对话后有一个问题,读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后
面的问题,从所给的三个选项中选出最恰当的一项。(共 10小题,计 10分)
1. A. Twice a week. B. Three times a week. C. Four times a week.
2. A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
3. A. Does his homework. B. Plays basketball. C. Plays soccer.
4. A. An actor. B. A doctor. C. A reporter.
5. A. Lily. B. Mary. C. Shirley.
6. A. A sports show. B. A talk show. C. A game show.
7. A. Soup. B. Bread. C. Salad.
8. A. A class party. B. A welcome party. C. A birthday party.
9. A. Funny. B. Serious. C. Outgoing.
10. A. Because he had a bad cold.
B. Because he ate nothing this morning.
C. Because he stayed up to do his homework.
第二节:听下面两段对话,每段对话后有几道小题,请根据对话的内容,从题目所给的三个
选项中选出问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。(共 5 小题,计 10分)
听第 11段对话,回答第 11、12 小题。
11. Where did Peter see a robot
A. At school. B. In a park. C. On TV.
12. How will kids study at home in the future
A. Learn by themselves. B. Learn with parents. C. Learn on computers.
听第 12段对话,回答第 13 至 15 小题。
13. Who did Ben climb the mountain with
A. His friend. B. His father. C. His mother.
14. How long did it take Ben to reach the top of the mountain
A. Two hours. B. Three hours. C. Four hours.
15. What did Amy do yesterday
A. She looked after her little sister.
B. She did some housework.
C. She studied for the math test.
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Ⅱ.听填信息(共 5 小题,计 10 分)
本题你将听到一段独白,读两遍。请根据独白内容,用所听到的单词或短语完成下列各题。
(每空不超过三个单词。)
When What to do
Call his friends to _16_ them to the party.
Before the party Go to the supermarket on _17_.
Help his mother _18_ for the party.
Do the _19_.
After the party Clean the 20.
Take out the trash(垃圾).
第二部分(笔试 共 90 分)
Ⅲ.完形填空(共 20 小题,计 20 分)
第一节:阅读第一篇短文,按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求,从各小题的四个选项
中选出一个最佳答案,使短文连贯完整。
The Magic Key in the Book
Lewis gave his son Toby a book without any pictures. Toby was disappointed. Le
wis said,“Dear, there is 21 magic key in the book ”Toby liked everything about
magic He opened the book, 22 he didn't find the key “You won't find it like
that You have to read it,”said Lewis Toby 23 reading the book, but he stoppe
d the next day He thought,“It's so boring There 24 no magic key Dad just wa
nts me 25 more ”
Toby's younger sister began to read the book 26 three days, she said,“I
have found the magic key! With it, I visited many places and people. They were gr
eat!”Hearing this,Toby began to read it again He 27 bored at first because t
here were no pictures in it But later, he found it 28 than before and he walk
ed into the world in the story He visited the wonderful places in the book by
29 .
“The book is the key!”he cried.
From then on, in every new book, Toby could see a magic 30 He enjoys readi
ng very much now.
21. A. a B. an C. the D./
22. A. though B. but C. and D. because
23. A. begin B. begins C. began D. will begin
24. A. is B. are C. has D. have
25. A. read B. to read C. reading D. reads
26. A. In B. Before C. For D. After
27. A. feel B. feels C. felt D. feeling
28. A. interesting B. more interestingC. interest D. the most interesting
29. A. him B. himself C. he D. his
30. A. book B. books C. key D. keys
第二节:阅读第二篇短文,理解大意,然后从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案,使短
文连贯完整。
Paul is from America He is a 13 year old boy He likes 31 on weekends There a
re many TV shows every day What kind of 32 does Paul like and what does he think o
f
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them Well, Paul's favorite TV shows are sports news and Animal World. He often watch
es them 33 he goes to bed Paul's favorite 34 is P E at school He likes playi
ng basketball very much. Paul loves sports news. He thinks it is very exciting becaus
e he can see a lot of famous 35 Paul 36 likes Animal World He thinks the show
is very interesting, and he can 37 a lot about animals from it Pandas and koalas
are Paul's favorite animals Paul hopes to go to 38 to see koalas one day As for
Healthy Living,Paul doesn't mind it. He watches it when there isn't sports news or A
nimal World. But Paul can't 39 soap operas He thinks they're 40 He never wa
tches them
31. A. going swimming B. going shopping C. watching TV D. doing some reading
32. A. TV shows B. sports C. songs D. news
33. A. so B. before C. after D. if
34. A. teacher B. color C. language D. subject
35. A. players B. runners C. actors D. doctors
36. A. just B. also C. either D. too
37. A. learn B. take C. give D. mind
38. A. China B. England C. America D. Australia
39. A. send B. mind C. stand D. prepare
40. A. interesting B. boring C. fun D. cool
Ⅳ.阅读理解(共 15 小题,计 20 分)
第一节:阅读下面 A、B、C 三篇材料,从所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子
的一个最佳答案。(共 10 小题,计 15 分)
A
Alvin finished a questionnaire(调查表)
Sunshine Hotel
Dear Guest,
Thank you for sharing your hotel experience.
Name of guest: Alvin Lee
Phone number: 53216987
Time of stay: from 6:00 p m on October 18th to 11:00 a m on October 22nd
please circle:
Hotel services 5—excellent 4—very good
3—good 2—OK 1—poor
Check-in(登记入住) 5 ④ 3 2 1
Staff expertise(员工专业技能) 5 4 ③ 2 1
Food 5 4 ③ 2 1
Timing(时间安排) of services 5 4 3 ② 1
Hotel environment
Lighting ⑤ 4 3 2 1
Music 5 ④ 3 2 1
Cleanliness ⑤ 4 3 2 1
Would you return to our hotel for a stay again
Yes.
What advice will you give
Faster housekeeping services and high-speed Internet.
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41. How many nights did Alvin stay in the Sunshine Hotel
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
42. Which of the following was Alvin the least happy with
A. Food. B. Staff expertise.
C. Timing of services. D. Check-in experience.
43 Alvin gave Sunshine Hotel advice on
A. housekeeping services and the Internet
B. lighting and housekeeping services
C. cleanliness and the Internet
D. cleanliness and lighting
B
Most people around the world agree that pandas are smart and cute animals. But can they dr
aw Can they do anything special I believe they can. These days a panda becomes a popular star
and helps the zoo where she lives get lots of visitors.
This female panda called Yang Yang comes from Vienna Zoo, Austria. Now she has learned to
use a brush to create her works of art. People like her paintings so much that 100 of them are
waiting online for someone to buy at $580 each.
Yang Yang's paintings will probably help the zoo to make $58,000. With the money, the zoo
will have the chance(机会) to publish(出版) a new picture book about the pandas in the zoo. Th
e plan will certainly come true because Yang Yang enjoys painting and can draw more pictures.
Two years ago, Yang Yang became a mother of twin pandas. She is a smart mother and learns
to draw quickly. Many visitors would like to visit the zoo to see Yang Yang's wonderful painti
ng shows They make people think of the first attempts(尝试) of a small child
You never know, with such an amazing talent, this cute animal may be able to become a grea
t artist!
44. Which of the following is true
A. Yang Yang drew more than 100 pictures.
B. Yang Yang comes from America.
C. Each of Yang Yang's paintings online is about $5,800.
D. Yang Yang has a twin sister.
45. What does the underlined word“They”refer to
A. Yang Yang's two kids. B. Yang Yang's painting shows.
C. The zoo's visitors. D. Smart and cute pandas.
46. Where can you probably read this passage
A. In a storybook. B. In a diary.
C. In a newspaper. D. In a sports magazine.
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C
I think that Earth Hour is a really good way to let people know that little things t
hey do can make a big difference to the earth.
Earth Hour started in Sydney, Australia, in March 2007. Now, cities all around the w
orld join in Earth Hour. During Earth Hour people turn off their lights, televisions and
computers to save the earth.
A lot of energy(能源) is saved around the world during Earth Hour, but people should
think more than one hour of energy saving. People should help the earth every hour of e
very day. Walking to school or the shop saves energy. Using both sides of the paper save
s energy.Turning off the tap(水龙头) when you brush your teeth saves energy. When you st
op and think about it, there are so many simple things people can do every day to save t
he earth.
Being part of Earth Hour connects people around the world for something good. I am g
oing to be part of Earth Hour again next year. I hope you will be, too.
47. When and where did Earth Hour start
A. It started in German, in May 2007.
B. It started in France, in March 2007.
C. It started in Australia, in March 2007.
D. It Started in Australia, in May 2007.
48. What is Paragraph 3 mainly about
A. When Earth Hour began.
B. What people think of Earth Hour.
C. How people can save energy every day.
D. Why people should protect the earth.
49. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A. People only need to save the earth during Earth Hour.
B. People should help the earth every hour of every day.
C. People can write on one side of the paper to save energy.
D. People should turn on the tap when they brush their teeth.
50 The writer writes this passage to
A. ask people to save the earth B. tell people to save time
C. help people live an easy life D. make people live happier
第二节:根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余
选项。(共 5 小题,计 5分)
I want to become a doctor 51 I really hope my dream of being an excellent
doctor will come true one day But it is not easy 52
First, be brave(勇敢的) when meeting difficulties. In the face of difficulties, I ho
pe thatI can be a brave person. I hope my first idea is not to give up, but to face them.
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53 I'm going to study medicine at a famous university and I will be really hard
working.
Third, exercise more 54 Without good physical condition(身体状况), lots of kn
owledge reserves(知识储备) will be on paper. So I make weekly plans to exercise.
55 Then I can get closer to my dream
A. Being a doctor needs a healthy body.
B. I think that being a doctor is one of the most important jobs in the world.
C. I usually read a lot of books about science in my free time.
D. All in all, I will try my best to keep these resolutions.
E. Making plans is a good way, so I make some resolutions.
F. Second, be ready to do sports.
G. Second, be ready to work hard.
V.完成句子:根据所给汉语意思,用单词或短语完成下列英文句子。(共 5 小题,计 10 分)
56.上周我收到了妈妈的来信。
I my mother last week
57.我们应该学会如何礼貌地拒绝别人的邀请。
We should learn how to others’ invitation politely
58.请给我一些关于礼貌行为的建议。
Please give me some ab out good manners
59.宇航员在进入太空之前必须反复训练和练习。
Astronauts have to train and practice before they enter space
60.如果明天天晴,我将去上一节游泳课。
If it is sunny tomorrow, I will take a
Ⅵ.短文填空:用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空,使短文完整正确。(每个单词限用一次,每空
限填一个单词。)(共 10 小题,计 10 分)
think he on do astronaut danger sell one probable be
Today is January 20th, 2060 It is confirmed(被确认) today that Mike will be the
61 visitor to Mars(火星). The 38-year-old American trader will leave the earth in
January 2062,together with six 62 Mike will soon start his two year training f
or the trip to Mars It will be an exciting but 63 trip It will take 64 fiv
e months to get to Mars, and then he will spend 100 days 65 the red planet Mike
is of course very excited “This is my dream I started dreaming of going into the
space when I 66 four,”he says
To be able to pay for the expensive ticket for the trip, Mike 67 his factory
NowMike almost has nothing but the ticket, but Mike believes he is 68 the right
thing How will Mike spend his days on Mars “Well, if I don't have a job when I ge
t back to the earth,Iwill spend some time 69 of a new idea,”he says and laughs
“ And if I can take a shovel(铁铲), I will 70 build the first hotel there ”
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Ⅶ.任务型阅读:阅读下面短文,根据短文内容,完成下列各题。(共 5 小题,计 10 分)
Chang’an(《长安三万里》) is an animated film(动画电影) that tells the life of the TangDynast
y, a great time in Chinese history.
Information from Douban
Title: Chang’an
Directors: Xie Junwei, Zou Jing
Release date: July 8, 2023
Genre: Animation/ History
Runtime: 168 minutes
Language: Chinese
Rating(评分):(Now, 4,190,000 people watched it. And 391,000 people gave their ratings.)
Comments(评论):
Sarah:
Li Bai and Gao Shi were real friends for a long time and they always helped each other. Th
eir friendship made me feel the warmth. I gave five stars!
Jenny:
When I watched it, my daughter recited(背诵) poems. It's really an educational film. Child
ren may get interested in more Chinese poems after watching it.
71. How long is the film Chang’an
It's long
72. When was the film released
It was released on
73. In the rating chart, how many people gave a four-star rating to Chang’an on Douban
There were people
74. What made Sarah feel the warmth
made her feel the warmth
75. What did Jenny think of the movie
She thought it was
Ⅷ.补全对话(共 5 小题,计 5分)
根据下面对话中的情境,在每个空白处填入一个适当的语句,使对话恢复完整。
A:Jackson, 76
B:I usually watch TV in my free time.
A:What TV shows do you like
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B:I like sports shows and sitcoms.
A:77
B:Because they make me happy and relaxed.
A:And which do you like better, sports shows or sitcoms
B:78 I can learn some great jokes from sitcoms What abo
ut you, Eric
A:I don't like watching TV. I usually go camping or climb mountains if I have time.
B:79
A:I usually do these with my cousin, Paul. We both love outdoor activities. We will
climb a mountain next weekend 80
B:Yes, I'd love to. Call me before you go.
.书面表达(共 1题,计 15分)
亲爱的同学们,紧张忙碌的一个学期即将结束,丰富多彩的寒假就要来临了。怎样安排好寒假
生活,过一个充实而又有意义的寒假呢 请根据以下提示,写出你的寒假计划。
寒假计划
1.早睡早起,健康饮食,锻炼身体;
2.坚持读书,发展兴趣,适当放松;
3.勤做家务,关爱他人,服务社区;
4……(自主发挥)
要求:1.参考以上提示内容,并将第四条补充完整;
2.语句通顺,意思连贯,可适当发挥;
3.文中不得出现你的任何真实信息(姓名、校名和地名等);
4.词数:70 词左右。作文的开头结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
The winter holiday is coming. Here are my plans for it.
If I can carry out the plans, I will have a colorful and meaningful winter holiday.
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