2023-2024学年度第一学期东海西部四校联考
九年级英语试题
(考试时间: 100分钟 试卷分值: 150分)
一、听力部分（共30分）
第一部分 听对话回答问题 （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
本部分共有10道小题，每小题你将听到一段对话，每段对话听两遍。在听每段对话前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目；听完后，每小题你将有5秒钟的时间选出你认为最合适的备选答案。听到“嘀”的信号时，进入下一小题。
1. Which is Daniel’s animal sign
A. B. C.
2. What does Andy want to be
A. B. C.
3. What is Millie doing
A. B. C.
4. Which sport does Tom like when he’s free
A. B. C.
5. How did Anna come to work today
A. By underground. B. By bus. C. By car.
6. Where will the boy and his mum go on Sunday
A. The zoo. B. The park. C. The farm.
7. How is the weather today
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Windy.
8. When will the film begin
A. At 4:15. B. At 4:30. C. At 4:45.
9. What did Jack watch on TV last night
A. A game. B. A talk. C. A show.
10. How high is the building
A. 125 metres. B. 215 metres. C. 521 metres.
第二部分 听对话和短文回答问题 （共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分）
你将听到一段对话和两篇短文，各听两遍。每段对话或短文后各有几道小题。听每段对话或短文前，你将有时间阅读相关小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题你将有5秒钟的时间选出你认为最合适的备选答案。
听一段对话，回答第11至12小题。答题完毕，请等待“嘀”的信号，进入第一篇短文。
11. What color does the woman like best
A. Red. B. Green. C. White.
12. How much should the woman pay
A. 70 yuan. B. 100 yuan. C. 170 yuan.
听第一篇短文，回答第13至15小题。答题完毕，请等待“嘀”的信号，进入下一篇短文。
Mrs. White
Job A 13 teacher.
Looks A short woman with long brown hair.
Personalities Kind and 14 .
Hobbies Playing volleyball, 15 and going climbing.
13. A. Chinese B. maths C. PE
14. A. humorous B. helpful C. honest
15. A. reading B. running C. singing
听第二篇短文，回答第16至20小题。
16. Where is Judy from
A. Japan. B. America. C. England.
17. Who does Judy live with
A. Her parents. B. Her relatives. C. Her grandparents.
18. Where is the library
A. On the left of Judy’s house. B. In front of Judy’s house. C. Behind Judy’s house.
19. How is the park
A. Big and clean. B. Small but clean. C. Big but dirty.
20. What is next to Judy’s house
A. A nice restaurant. B. A new hospital. C. A big cinema.
二、单项选择（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
21. Hong Kong-Zhuhai-Macao Bridge is _____ longest sea-crossing bridge in the world.
A. a B. an C. the D. /
22. The new school uniforms look nice _____ the students.
A. at B. on C. in D. for
23. You should wear an orange shirt for your job interview, ________ orange can bring you good luck.
A. but B. so C. as D. or
24. The song Dream It Possible _____ many people. It encourages us not to give up easily.
A. stays up B. picks up C. cheers up D. puts up
25. Wu Mengchao saved thousands of lives. We _________ praise him too much.
A. must B. mustn’t C. can D. can’t
26. Just as the saying goes, “Think twice _____ you act.”
A. since B. while C. after D. before
27. —Do you think David and Lisa can be good accountants
—Accountants should be careful enough. _____ David _____ Lisa is suitable, I’m afraid.
A. Either ; or B. Both ; and C. Neither ; nor D. Not only ; but also
28. In recent years, China has made great _____ in the space field.
A. peace B. progress C. plan D. pioneer
29. — I’m new here. Could you please tell me_______
— Sure. It’s over there behind the shopping mall.
A. where the museum is B. when the museum opens
C. how far is the museum D. how can I get to the museum
30. — Thanks so much for lending your umbrella to me. — _____.
A. It doesn’t matter B. The same to you C. Don’t mention it D. Sounds great
31. Tom had no _______ experience. You shouldn’t ask him to help you with your work.
A. powerful B. practical C. loyal D. general
32. The boy is _________________himself.
A. enough old to dress B. old enough to dress
C. enough old dressing D. old enough dressing
33. If you have difficulty _____ a decision, wearing red _____ easier for you to take action.
A. make; making this B. made; making one
C. making; make that D. making; makes it
34. These photos_____ me_____ the old days when I was young.
A. let, think B. remind, of C. make, think D. take, to
35. I'd like to_______ David as the new chairperson of the students' Union .
A. recommend B. realize C. remind D. remember
三、完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
Schools in China are paying more attention to life skills teaching. Primary school 36 are required to understand some basic knowledge in life. For example, students should know how to
37 food. They prepare vegetables, cut them and finally finish the whole cooking by 38 .
“This reminds me of my life skills class in primary school. It was interesting. I learned to make dumplings 39 sometimes I did simple repairing work,” one Weibo user wrote. “It’s a
40 memory of my childhood. Moreover, I can 41 these skills in my life now.”
“These lifelong skills can help kids 42 more abilities, not just taking exams,” said another user. “As we all know, students used to spend much time on 43 . They felt tired. But now, life skills teaching gives them more chances to 44 life.”
According to the “double reduction” policy, students have less homework than before. Then,
45 can they make the best use of their free time Life skills learning has become a popular choice. “My son can 46 some housework at home now,” one parent told China Daily. “More importantly, he can learn how to look after himself 47 when parents are not at home. It means a lot 48 me.”
A teacher told China Daily, “Education should pay attention to the 49 of each student, not only in study, but also in life skills. As teachers, we are 50 of what students have achieved, even little success. When they make mistakes, we will always be there to help.”
36. A. leaders B. doctors C. students D. workers
37. A. sell B. cook C. buy D. eat
38. A. they B. them C. their D. themselves
39. A. if B. and C. so D. but
40. A. wonderful B. boring C. noisy D. strange
41. A. shout B. turn C. use D. forget
42. A. count B. lose C. hide D. develop
43. A. walk B. study C. information D. experience
44. A. finish B. cost C. enjoy D. protect
45. A. who B. why C. what D. how
46. A. share B. dream C. watch D. meet
47. A. late B. back C. well D. loud
48. A. of B. at C. to D. by
49. A. youth B. growth C. birth D. warmth
50. A. proud B. afraid C. tired D. full
四、阅读理解 （共两节，20小题；51-65题，每小题2分；66-70题，每小题1分，满分35分）
第一节：阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Summer Programs at Museums.
The Postal Museum Dates：July 17－23 Age：11－13 Would you like to join us this summer vacation？You can create a stamp with your own design, write and mail a postcard, and learn about the history of stamps. Tel：965 0400
The Air and Space Museum Dates：July 29－30 Age：8－11 If you enjoy programs about air and space, please come here. It's a good place to make and fly your own paper airplane, watch an IMAX movie, and climb into a real airplane. Tel：654 0930
The Science Museum Dates：August 7－20 Age：9－12 You can experience video art and computer technology, play VR games to explore(探索)a future city, and ask the robots questions about science. It will be wonderful. Have fun! Tel：357 3030
The Building Museum Dates：August 21－27 Age：13－15 Want to enjoy design challenges？Come and join us. You can also go on field trips to some famous buildings, and build small houses with blocks. All the programs are free. Tel：272 0560
51．When can you join in the programs at the Postal Museum
A．Any day from July 17 to July 23.
B．Any day from July 29 to July 30.
C．Any day from August 7 to August 20.
D．Any day from August 21 to August 27.
52．Which number can you phone if you are interested in the program about video art
A．965-0400. B．654-0930. C．357-3030. D．272-0560.
53．A 15-year-old student can take part in the programs at ________.
A．the Building Museum B．the Postal Museum
C．the Air and Space Museum D．the Science Museum
B
Mary didn’t understand such sentences as “She is blue today.”, “You are yellow.”, “He has a green thumb.”, “He has told a white lie.” and so on. And she went to the teacher Mrs James for help.
Mary: Mrs James, there is a colour in each of the sentences. What do they mean
Mrs James: In everyday English, Mary, blue sometimes means sadness, and yellow means fear. A person with a green thumb grows plants well and a white lie is not a bad one.
Mary: I’m afraid I don’t understand them all. Would you give me an example for “a white lie”
Mrs James: Certainly. Now I just give you some bread. In fact you don’t like it, but you don’t want to let me know it. Instead you say, “No, thanks. I’m not hungry.” That’s a white lie.
Mary: It sounds very interesting. Thanks very much.
Mrs James: You are welcome. Colours are meaningful. I think you will meet more sentences like these in the future. Please come to me if you have any questions.
54．I don’t have a green thumb, so all my plants ________.
A．die off B．grow well C．look nice D．are good
55．David is yellow and he is ________ of climbing the tall tree!
A．happy B．clever C．brave D．afraid
56．He didn’t want me to know ________ of the accident. He told me a white lie at last.
A．the reason B．the true story/truth
C．the meaning D．the answer
57．He is ________ today. He is told that his father is seriously ill.
A．blue B. yellow C．green D．white
C
Mary put on her hat and coat and ran to the secret garden. Dickon was there. When she told him about Colin’s tantrum (发脾气), he said, “The poor boy!”
“Dickon!” Mary said suddenly. “I have an e and see Colin tomorrow! And bring Soot and Captain and the squirrels, too! He wants to meet you. And he wants to see your animals.”
Dickon thought it was a very good idea, so Mary went back to the house to tell Colin. He was happy to see her.
“I’m sorry I shouted at you last night, Mary,” he said. “Tell me about Dickon and the crow and the fox cub,” he said.
Mary knew that this was the moment to tell him everything.
“Can I trust you ” Mary asked.
“Yes!” he whispered.
“Dickon is coming to see you tomorrow morning. And he’s going to bring his animals.”
“Oh, Mary!” Colin cried. “I really want to meet Dickon.”
“And also ...” Mary went on, “I ... I found the door into the secret garden.”
Colin’s eyes grew bigger and bigger.
“Colin, we’re going to take you there!”
Later, the doctor arrived and checked Colin. That night, Colin slept well. He dreamt about the garden again, and Dickon and his animals.
Colin felt so excited when he finally met them. The next day, all of them were inside the garden, Colin looked round and round. He saw the walls and the earth and the trees with their new green leaves. In the grass under the trees there were flowers. The sun was warm. Mary and Dickon stared at Colin’s face. He looked different. His face was pink, not white.
“Mary! Dickon! I’m going to get well!” he cried. “And I’m going to live forever and ever!”
58. From the passage, we can know that Dickon _______.
A. was a poor boy B. had animal friends
C. got angry easily D. refused to see Colin
59. Which of the following is the correct order of the story
① Colin shouted at Mary last night.
② The doctor came and checked Colin.
③ Dickon, Mary and Colin were inside the garden.
④ Mary told Colin she had found the door into the garden.
A. ②③①④ B. ②③④①
C. ①④②③ D. ①④③②
60. What does the underlined word “stared” probably mean in the passage
A. Laughed. B. Knocked. C. Shouted. D. Looked.
61. How did Colin feel about the garden
A. Sad. B. Bored. C. Hopeful. D. Angry.
D
In Spain, children and their families are riding bikes to school together in large groups. The program is called bike bus.
Then, how did it begin In Barcelona, a group of five children began biking to school with their parents on Fridays. Soon the group grew to 150 or more.
What’s it like The bike bus begins around 8:25 every Friday morning. The path it follows is always posted before it starts, so everyone knows where to join. Instead of riding in bike lanes (车道), the bike bus takes over the whole street. The trip lasts for about 25 minutes. And with the growing cycling and skating kids taking part in this bike bus culture, the local police are helping stop traffic by riding in front of the bike bus or behind it. This further makes the parents happy because they don’t have to worry about their children’s safety on the road. With music playing and bike bells ringing, the bike bus feels like a party. “The best part of the bike bus is that we ride along and pick up my friends and we ride together,” nine-year-old Maria says.
How does it change people’s life Some parents have made the bike bus the way they get to work on Friday. They are hoping that the bike bus will help change ideas about how people can get around in the city. They want the city to build wider, kid-friendly bike lanes that are separated from car traffic. They point out that the bike bus also helps cut down on pollution.
Now, the bike bus is getting more and more attention. Many people think it’s a great activity and decide to join it.
62. Paragraph 1 mainly tells us _______.
A. what the bike bus is B. who started the bike bus first
C. why children like the bike bus D. how the bike bus is organized
63. What can we know about the bike bus
A. Parents help stop traffic. B. People can join it every day.
C. Children ride in bike lanes. D. The trip takes about 25 minutes.
64. From the words of Maria, we can infer that children _______.
A. are afraid of riding at first B. care about road safety
C. ride to make parents happy D. like riding with friends
65. How does the writer organize the whole passage
A. B. C. D.
：阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺连贯，其中有两项是多余选项。
When I was growing up, I had an old neighbor named Dr Gibbs. He was kind. 66 He wished to make it a forest.
Dr Gibbs had some interesting ideas about planting trees. He never watered his young trees at first. Once I asked him why, he said, “ 67 If you don’t, they will have to grow deep roots (根) to look for water under the earth on their own.”
He planted some oak trees. Instead of watering them every morning, he beat them with newspapers. 68
Dr Gibbs died two years after I left home. I always walked by his house and looked at the trees he planted 25 years ago. They became big and strong.
I also planted two trees several years ago. 69 I watered them every day to protect them from the hot weather. However, after two years of close caring, when a cold wind blew in, they shook a lot.
(
A. You planted flowers on the balcony.
B. He planted trees in his large garden.
C. We grow up with parents
’
good care.
D. He said it was to get the tree
’
s attention.
E. They can reach deep into the
brave heart.
F. I carried water to them for a whole summer.
G. If you water them early, baby trees will grow weaker.
)Life is hard. We need to grow our own roots. 70 When the rain falls and the wind blows, we can face them strongly and won’t be beaten down.
五、词汇运用（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
根据短文意思和首字母提示，写出一个完整正确的单词。每空只写一词。
Mrs Rainbow is a colour therapist. When studying in college, she found that there is a relationship between people’s personalities and colours. And our moods can be (71) i_____________by colours. Since then, she has (72) p_________ colour therapy, hoping to use it to help people in need. Here is what she (73) d___________（发现）.
There are three primary colours: red, yellow and blue. They can be used for (74) d ________ （分开）people into different groups.
The group of people who love red are confident. Being either sales men or athletes (75)_______(be) suitable for them. They always believe everything in their (76) e___________ lives will go on as they have planned.
Yellow is usually loved by cowardly(胆小的) people. They are afraid of arguments(争吵). So they never get angry (77) e__________ or have a fight with someone. However, sometimes they are full of wisdom , so they can make wise (78) d______________.
Lovers of blue would rather believe in others than (79) t_________（信任）themselves. So this group of people prefer to be followers(追随者) instead of leaders. One who loves blue is more quiet but more hardworking than others. He always works to high (80) s___________.
Different colours can show different personalities of people. Maybe we can know what someone is like according to the colour he likes.
六、选词填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从方框中选择恰当的词或短语并用其正确的形式填空 (每个词或短语只能用一次)。
usual; sad; try on; have difficulty in; take the lead; be divided into; work out; a great deal of; do the dishes; as soon as
81.___________ the film Home Coming was on, Bruce went to watch it.
82. Friends are important. They can help us get away from ___________.
83. Timmy was cleaning the table while his sister ___________.
84. Yesterday, all the students ___________ five groups to do the project.
85. Life is like a race. You either ___________ or fall behind.
86. Look! The twins ___________ their clothes for Halloween.
87. So far, about 60% of the students ___________the difficult problem successfully.
88. What can we learn from Spud Webb’s ___________experiences
89. I often help Dick when he ___________ doing homework.
90. It took scientists ___________ time to test the new machine.
(
………
..
)七、阅读表达 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读短文，根据短文内容回答问题，每个题目的答案不超过5个单词。
Service dogs are very good because they are helpful. They are trained to help their owners. Who can own a service dog Disabled people can. For example, a person may be blind or deaf. Service dogs can do many things to help these people. For example, they can help blind owners cross the road.
Can any dog become a service dog In fact, many dogs can. Just remember service dogs should be healthy and friendly. Many organizations train the dogs. The training takes months or years. After this, the dogs are given to an owner.
Most public places let service dogs come in with their owners. The dogs can go into restaurants, banks and shops.
In my opinion, service dogs are more than just pets. They enjoy helping people!
91. Who can own a service dog
92. How can service dogs help blind owners in the passage
93. How long does it take to train a service dog
94. According to the writer, why are service dogs more than just pets
95. What do you think of service dogs
八、书面表达 (共1小题；满分25分)
96. 近期我校将组织一批优秀学生前去无锡惠山中学参观并与他们互交好友，请根据下列提示，写一篇90词左右的自荐信给董校长来推荐自己成为学生代表。开头结尾已给出，不计入总次数。
基本信息 王雷，八年级6班
个性特征 学习勤奋,从不缺课，自信…谦虚...乐于助人…(各举一例说明）
喜好特长 擅长画画，喜欢蓝色，（自拟一条理由）
你的希望 请自由发挥1-2句2023-2024学年度第一学期东海西部四校联考
九年级英语参考答案及评分建议
听力部分（共20小题；1-10题，每小题1分；11-20题，每小题2分，满分30分）
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A A C B C A B A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C B A A C A C B A
二、单项选择（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
C B C C D D C B A C B B D B A
三、完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C B D B A C D B C D A C C B A
四、阅读理解（共20小题；51-65题，每小题2分；66-70题，每小题1分，满分35分）
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A C A A D B A B C D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C A D D A B G D F E
五、词汇运用（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
71. influenced 72. practised 73. discovers 74. dividing 75. is
76. everyday 77. easily 78. decisions 79. trust 80. standards
六、选词填空 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
81. As soon as 82. sadness
83. was doing the dishes 84. were divided into
85. take the lead 86. are trying on
87. have worked out 88. unusual
89. has difficulty in 90. a great deal of
七、阅读表达 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
91. Disabled/ Blind/ Deaf people./ The disabled/ blind/ deaf.
92. Help them cross the road./ Cross the road.
93. It takes months or years./ Months or years.
94. They enjoy helping people./ They are helpful./ They help people.
95. Good./ Special./ Helpful./ Meaningful./ Useful ... (言之有理即可)
评分细则：
(一) 信息完整，表达准确，标点规范，5个词以内（含5个词），得2分；
(二) 信息不完整、表达不准确、单词拼写有错误、标点不规范、超出5个词等，得1分；
(三) 无任何关联信息、未写任何单词，得0分。
八、书面表达 (共1小题；满分25分)
评分细则：
（一）各档次的给分范围和要求
档次与总分 总体描述与内容要点
第五档 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 覆盖所有内容要点。 语法结构和词汇有个别小错误，但为尽量使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 有效地使用了衔接手段，全文结构紧凑，内容连贯。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。
很好 （21-25分）
第四档 完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一、二个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，少许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 应用简单的衔接手段，全文结构紧凑，内容较连贯。 达到了预期的写作目的。
好 （16-20分）
第三档 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一些内容，但基本覆盖主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 应用简单的衔接手段，内容基本连贯。 基本达到了预期的写作目的。
中等 （11-15分）
第二档 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 漏掉或未清楚描述某些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 语法结构单一，所用词汇有限。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对所写内容的理解。 较少使用衔接手段，内容缺少连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
较差 （6-10分）
第一档 未完成试题规定的任务。 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 语法结构单一，所用词汇不当。 有较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响内容理解。 缺乏语句间的衔接手段，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。
差 （1-5分）
0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与试题要求内容无关或无法看清。抄写试卷上篇章内容。
（二）内容覆盖
1. 分析问题：8分；
2. 合理建议：给出2-3个建议，每个建议发挥2-3句，12分；
3. 总结句：2分；
4. 段与段之间衔接、书写、标点3分。
（三）词数少于70和多于120的，从总分中减去2分。
（四）如书写较差，标点不规范，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
（五）内容要点可用不同方式表达，对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。
